Path 6(A good doctor doesn't jump to conclusio - drewalksonwater

[ArchivalUser]

A 73-year-old Caucasian male presents to your office with epigastric pain that starts 30-40 mm after meals and does not respond to antacids. He lost several pounds over the last few weeks because he eats less for fear of pain. His past medical history is significant for hypertension hyperlipidemia, coronary artery bypass grafting, and right-sided carotid endarterectomy. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy does not reveal any abnormalities. The pathophysiology of this patient’s symptoms is most close to that of which of the following?
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Esophageal spasm
C. Aortal dissection
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Stable angina

[ArchivalUser]

EE ischemic disease

[ArchivalUser]

E..

[ArchivalUser]

agree.

[ArchivalUser]

Everyone is correct. Good work people. To get this right means that you take every symptom into account.