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After participating in a strenuous basketball practice, a 15-year-old boy experiences severe pain over the anterolateral aspect of his leg. The next morning he has difficulty walking. Anterior tibial syndrome is suspected. Which of the following symptoms is supportive of this diagnosis?
A. Absence of the pulse between the medial malleolus and Achilles tendon
B. Inability to evert the foot
C. Sensory loss between the first and second toes
D. Sensory loss over most of the dorsal aspect of the foot
E. Sensory loss over the plantar surface of the foot
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Option C is correct. The muscles of the anterior compartment are placed in a tight fascial box surrounded by rigid and semirigid walls (tibia, fibula, interosseous membrane, crural fascia, and anterior intermuscular septum). The swollen musculature resulting from heavy exercise compresses the arteries, causing degeneration and necrosis of muscle fibers. Swollen muscles also compress the deep fibular (peroneal) nerve, which is located in the anterior compartment of the leg. The adjacent sites of the first and second toes anteriorly are the only cutaneous areas of the foot supplied by the deep fibular (peroneal) nerve.
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why not superf.peroneal??
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superficial peronial supply the lateral compartment of leg muscle (eversion) and supply(cutaneus) lowers half of the anterior leg and most part of the dorsum of foot...common peroneal nerve divides into supeficial and deep peroneal nerve just below the fibular neck...and then deep peroneal nerve curve medially to descend over the interosseous membrane..the superficial peroneal nerve descneds being lateral to the fibula in the lateral compartment of the leg...so it is not in the anterior compartment to me compressed with the swelling there....compression to deep peroneal nerve also cause foot drom....as it supplies the dorsi flexors...
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pt complains of pain in anterolateral aspect,make me confuse
