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ID q for discussion - certi
#1
ID Q77
A 29-year-old male who is an intravenous drug user presents to ER with complains of dyspnea. He says that over the last few days he has become short of breath and has almost no exercise tolerance. He does have a dry cough which has been persistent. He had a fever 2 days ago which he self-treated with Tylenol. He also complains that he has a watery diarrhea and abdominal cramping which has just started, with a low-grade fever, dyspnea and general malaise. On exam, he looks emaciated and has numberous needle marks on his hands. His blood gas reveals a PCO2 of 36 and PO2 of 64 on room air. The chest x-ray shows bilateral fluffy infiltrates. You conclude that the patient has pneumonia. After making a diagnosis, you decide to treat this patient. He has had an anaphylactic reaction to sulfonamides when he was child. What is the pathogen organism? (Legionella or PCP)
And How do you treat this patient?
A. Penicillin
B. Pentamidine
C. Tetracycline
D. Acyclovir
E. Cephalosporin
F. Gatifloxacin
G. Vancomycin
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#2
PCP - Pentamidine


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#3
agree, IV drug cause HIV inf. PCP inf. pentamidine
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#4
Yes, HIV patient w PCP, Pentamidine
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#5
its pcp...rx is pentamidine...
bilateral fluffy infiltrates..can be seen in pcp / mycoplasma / legionella..
in legionalla the pt will be more toxic...he will have cns signs as well..
in mycoplasma usually its only pneumonia..they usually dont have diarrhoea etc..
in pcp ..points which favor it ...---ivda , poor nutrition....diarrhoea and pneumonia....pcp can cause both...moreover ivda..always think hiv..
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#6
pcp, PENTAMIDINE.
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#7
thanks for everyone's input.
It is PCP and Pentamidine.
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