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21. A previously healthy 85-year-old man has had abdominal distention, decreased caliber of stools, and decreased appetite over the past 2 weeks and a 9-kg (20-lb) weight loss over the past 3 months. On sigmoidoscopy, he is found to have a constricting adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon; imaging studies show three 1-cm metastases to the liver. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) No treatment B) Radiation therapy C) Chemotherapy D) Combination radiation therapy and chemotherapy E) Resection of the colon tumor
Pl answer with explanation
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Accor to Kaplan answer is C chemo for widespread ds.
But accor to me ans is E Resection of the colon tumor in order to relieve obstruction.
Pl correct me if am wrong.
Add/any suggestions. Thanks.
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I would say "E" as well.
Thank you for the question
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Thank you sweety for your opinion
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Its C for metastatic disease you don't do surgery
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ssaarz6
First you have to relieve immediate obstruction by surgery followed by chemo later on.
