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usmle cd Qs 1 - tupak
#1
A 38 year-old woman has a congestive heart failure, premature ventricular contractions, and repeated episodes of ventricular tachycardia. Her blood pressure is normal and there are no murmurs. Her heart is markedly enlarged. Coronary angiography shows abnormalities. Coronary angiography shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A- Acute rheumatic fever
B- Congenital fibroelastosis
C- Constictive pericarditis
D- Myocardial infarction
E- Primary cardiomyopathy
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#2
E. Primary cardiomyopathy?
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#3
B. Congenital fibroelastosis
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