02-14-2017, 10:00 PM
We know they often occur together so we treat them together empirically with Ceftriaxone and azithromycin.
UW indicates that NAAT is highly sensitive 96% and highly specific 99%.
When NAAT confirms Chlamydia, we only treat Chlamydia with Azithromycin
BUT
When NAAT confirms gonorrhoeae, we treat BOTH with Ceftriaxone AND Azithromycin?
If NAAT is highly specific for both, why are we treating BOTH when NAAT confirms negative for Chlamydia and not treat both when NAAT confirms gonorrhoeae?
PS
I remember reading an article saying Azithromycin contributes in treating gonorrhoeae. Is that why?
UW indicates that NAAT is highly sensitive 96% and highly specific 99%.
When NAAT confirms Chlamydia, we only treat Chlamydia with Azithromycin
BUT
When NAAT confirms gonorrhoeae, we treat BOTH with Ceftriaxone AND Azithromycin?
If NAAT is highly specific for both, why are we treating BOTH when NAAT confirms negative for Chlamydia and not treat both when NAAT confirms gonorrhoeae?
PS
I remember reading an article saying Azithromycin contributes in treating gonorrhoeae. Is that why?