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41-year-old woman presents with chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and frequent headaches. She states that her musculoskeletal pain improves slightly with exercise. On examination, painful trigger points are produced by palpitation of the trapezius and lateral epicondyle of the elbow. If objective signs of inflammation are absent and laboratory studies are normal, this patient would most likely be responsive to which of the following drugs?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Cefaclor
C. Naproxen
D. Oxycodone
E. Prednisone
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fibromyalgia...neural pain..amitryptiline
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u guys are good...
The correct answer is A. The patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of fibrositis (fibromyalgia). This disorder is most commonly seen in women between the ages of 20 and 50, and is associated with widespread chronic musculoskeletal pain that improves with exercise, chronic fatigue, and sometimes, severe headaches. Examination typically reveals painful trigger points produced by palpation of the trapezius and the lateral epicondyle of the elbow. Objective signs of inflammation are absent and laboratory studies are normal. Patients with this disorder are likely to respond to treatment with tricyclic antidepressants or skeletal muscle relaxants with strong anticholinergic side effects, such as cyclobenzaprine. One of the most effective agents in the treatment of this disorder is amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant commonly used in the treatment of depression, and as an adjunctive pain medication.