12-20-2008, 02:25 PM
A 10-year- old boy has chronic iron-deficiency anemia. A test of stool for occult blood is positive. A barium enema with air contrast shows no abnormalities. Findings on upper endoscopic examination are normal. his condition improves with Hâ‚‚-receptor antagonist therapy. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the bleeding?
a) Arteriovenous malformation
b) Congenital megacolon ( Hirschsprung disease)
c) Esophageal reflux
d) Meckel diverticulum
e) Ulcerative colitis
a) Arteriovenous malformation
b) Congenital megacolon ( Hirschsprung disease)
c) Esophageal reflux
d) Meckel diverticulum
e) Ulcerative colitis