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neuro Q15 - tacrolimus99
#1
A 71-year-old man presents to the emergency department at the instruction of his primary care physician. The patient felt well when he went to bed at midnight but awoke at 8:00 a.m. with left upper-extremity weakness and numbness. He called his physician who told him to go to the emergency department. He arrives at the emergency department at 9:00 a.m.

The patient's medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia for which he takes a thiazide diuretic and a statin. His blood pressure is 178/92 mm Hg; physical examination reveals mild left-sided neglect, a mild left central facial palsy, mild left upper- and lower-extremity weakness, and a mild left hemisensory deficit. Complete blood count and serum electrolytes and glucose are normal. CT scan of the brain is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

A Start aspirin
B Start intravenous heparin
C Start clopidogrel
D Start intravenous tissue plasminogen activator
E Lower blood pressure to 140/90 mm Hg
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#2
A..
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#3
eeeee
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#4
# Secondary prevention of cardioembolic stroke consists of warfarin with a target INR of 2.0 to 3.0.
# Heparin has no established role in the acute treatment of stroke
correcr answer aaaa
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#5
a..
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#6
i am sorry guys Sad
this was answer for other question although correct answer here is also aaaa but with different explanation
* In patients with stroke not eligible for thrombolytic therapy, aspirin modestly reduces both the short-term risk of recurrent stroke and the long-term risk of stroke-related death and disability.
* In patients with acute stroke, thrombolytic therapy must be started within 3 hours of the onset of symptoms or of the time the patient was last known to be well.
aaaaa
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