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Some confused and chose D, i would go with A, any thoughts?
15.) A 24-year-old man is hospitalized for treatment of a posterior dislocation of the
right knee sustained in a motorcycle collision. Six hours after closed reduction,
previously present distal pulses in his foot are absent, but the foot has remained
warm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Elevation of the limb and observation for 24hours
B) Nitroprusside therapy
C) Sympathetic block
D) Femoral arteriography
E) Embolectomy with a Fogarty catheter through aproximal arteriotomy
D) Inflammation of the origin of the plantar fascia
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d.
post dislocation of the knee and absent of pulse=popliteal artery damage until proven otherwise
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But the foot remains warm, why not observation?
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all knee dislocations not requiring immediate surgical revascularization should be admitted for serial perfusion checks as delayed intimal flap thromboses, arteriovenous (AV) fistulas, and pseudoaneurysms of significance certainly occur and may need subsequent intervention/repair.
so i guess D
what do u think
