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nbme 1 - mikajee
#1
1. A 70-year-old woman has had increasing abdominal pain over the past 2 days. She has renal failure and has been receiving peritoneal dialysis for 18 months; her last treatment was 2 hours ago. She appears toxic. Her temperature is 39 C (102.2 F), and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to deep palpation with rebound tenderness. Leukocyte count is 18,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A ) X-ray films of the abdomen
B ) Comparison of abdominal fluid amylase with serum amylase activity
C ) Gram's stain of abdominal fluid
D ) Ultrasonography of the abdomen
E ) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis


3. A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. On arrival, he is awake and alert but has severe pain over the sternum. His systolic blood pressure is 80 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 10/min. An ECG shows multifocal premature ventricular contractions but no ST-segment changes. His PO2 is 100 mm Hg. After 1 L of lactated Ringer's solution is administered, his PO2 decreases to 60 mm Hg while breathing 4 L/min of oxygen by nasal cannula. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure has increased from 14 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg (N=1–10). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's poor response to fluid resuscitation?

A ) Inadequate administration of fluids
B ) Myocardial contusion
C ) Myocardial infarction
D ) Pulmonary contusion
E ) Traumatic rupture of the aorta


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#2
maybe B) since the pt has fever and generalized abd. tenderness could be SBP
gram stains are usually negative in SBP



3) myocardial contusion ... since we are loading an already malfunctioning heart with more fluids therefore it worsens .... also no st chagnes so infarction disagree ... direct injury to the sternum mostly indicates cardiac injury .... rupture of aorta would give u hemothorax with dullnes too percussion
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#3
thanks, regarding the first Q i also picked B but the key says C. i dunno maybe coz its already known to be infectious, kinda cofused, guess we should follow the stardard protocol though??
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#4
thanks mzk, well explained for the second Q Smile
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#5
C cannot be the answer since gram stain is usualy negative in sbp so its not reliable ...
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#6
1. C
its not sbp ..its most probably stap. peritonitis due to peritonial dialysis(repeated insertion of cathter to peritonium ,make pt. very prone to develop peritonitis)

3. myocardial contusion(ecg findings,trauma)
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