Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
path Q - sh4peace
#1
A routine Pap smear is obtained on a 45-year-old female who has not had a previous Pap smear. The results indicate that dysplastic cells are present, and the lesion is consistent with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) Ill. The patient is referred to a gynecologist who performs colposcopy and takes several biopsies that all show CIN III. She undergoes conization of the cervix. Pathologic examination of the cone reveals a focus of microinvasion at the squamocolumnar junction. What would you advise this patient regarding these findings?

(A) A course of radiation therapy is indicated.
(B)A total abdominal hysterectomy should be performed.
© A bone scan for metastatic lesions should be done.
(D) A pelvic exenteration will be necessary.
(E) No further therapy is indicated at this time.
Reply
#2
e....
Reply
#3
good job, harsh. Can you explain ?
Reply
#4
here pt had CIN3 for whch we did conisation...n then we get microscopic invasion in the conisation...n thus pt comes into stage 1 a....n rx for tat is conisation itself..so..nw no more rx required....
Reply
#5
HOPE U GET IT...I m nt a good teacher i suppose
Reply
#6
thanks, U r so good.
Reply
#7
thanx harsh
Reply
« Next Oldest | Next Newest »


Forum Jump: