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p14 - guest1
#1
A 72-year-old female patient with Alzheimer's disease, but no other medical problems, suddenly becomes
comatose and dies due to an intracranial hemorrhage that caused severe damage to her entire left cerebral
hemisphere. There was no evidence or history of trauma. What is the most likely cause of this hemorrhage?


A. Epidural hematoma

B. Subdural hematoma

C. Amyloid angiopathy

D. Rupture of berry aneurysm

E. Rupture of Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm
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#2
CCCCCCCCC
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#3
C is correct....guys, i have been trying to post and for some reason its not letting me...so i will try it tomorrow....GL Bye.
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#4
bye..gl
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#5
basic pathology....good one
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