06-08-2008, 08:46 AM
A 67-year-old man is evaluated because of bright red blood in his stool 2 weeks ago, which seemed to resolve spontaneously. Rectal examination reveals increased sphincter tone, a small fissure, and a normal prostate gland. Stool is brown and negative for occult blood.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
( A ) No further investigation
( B ) Three tests of stool for occult blood
( C ) Colonoscopy
( D ) Barium enema
( E ) CT scan of the abdomen
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
( A ) No further investigation
( B ) Three tests of stool for occult blood
( C ) Colonoscopy
( D ) Barium enema
( E ) CT scan of the abdomen