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A 40-year-old woman has the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. On physical examination she has diffuse tenderness in all abdominal quadrants, with marked guarding and muscular rigidity. She has laboratory findings that include serum AST of 43 U/L, ALT of 30 U/L, LDH 630 U/L, and lipase 415 U/L. An abdominal CT scan reveals peritoneal fluid collections and decreased attenuation along with enlargement of the pancreas. Which of the following cellular changes is most likely to accompany these findings?
A Coagulative necrosis
B Dry gangrene
C Fat necrosis
D Apoptosis
E Liquefactive necrosis
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Fat necrosis
necrotizing pancreatisis
my guess
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faty necrosis,
what is the first important step in management of this pts??
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NBM and IVI.
THEN REFER TO MD SURGEON
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NBM AND IVI: WHAT DOES IT MEAN?
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FAt necrosis (pankreas gives that)
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Hi,
well it means keep the patient nil by mouth , start intravenous infusion and refer to surgeons.
Its treatment for pancreatitis
but its not relevant for step1 . knowing fat necrosis in imp.
cheerio
