01-24-2011, 01:15 PM
A 30-year-old Caucasian female presents to your office for the evaluation of infertility. She has been married for three years and has not been using any means of contraception during this period. She has never been pregnant. Her menstrual periods are regular; she describes no pain during menses and no coital discomfort. Her past medical history is insignificant. She does not smoke or consume alcohol. She is currently not taking any medications. Her family history is significant for diabetes in her mother and prostate cancer in her father. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg and heart rate is 70/min. Her serum progesterone level at 10 days before the menstruation is normal. Hysterosalpingography shows a septum within the uterus and non-obstructed fallopian tubes. Which of the following is the best statement about this patient's condition?
A ). The uterine septum has nothing to do with infertility
B ). Infertility can be managed with intrafallopian insemination
C ). Ovulation failure should be corrected first
D ). Surgery is unlikely to correct infertility
E ). Endoscopic surgery is not an option for septate uteri
A ). The uterine septum has nothing to do with infertility
B ). Infertility can be managed with intrafallopian insemination
C ). Ovulation failure should be corrected first
D ). Surgery is unlikely to correct infertility
E ). Endoscopic surgery is not an option for septate uteri