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NMBE# anyone plz ... - clinical
#1
A 49-year-old homeless white man comes to the emergency department and says, "I began vomiting 2 to 3 hours ago, and then started to throw up blood." He reports vomiting "about half a cup" of red blood. He had epigastric discomfort after several episodes of emesis, but no preceding abdominal pain. The patient says that he drinks about a half pint of bourbon per day, and he does not use aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). He has no previous history of similar symptoms. Vital signs now are: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse 105/min and blood pressure 150/77 mm Hg. On physical examination he is alert, oriented and disheveled, and he has the odor of alcohol on his breath. No scleral icterus is present. Abdomen is soft, with mild epigastric tenderness. Liver edge is palpated 2 cm below the right costal margin and is nontender. Bowel sounds are present. Stool is negative for occult blood. An intravenous line is started. Endoscopy confirms a tear of the gastroesophageal junction. Laboratory studies show:


Serum



Amylase

135 U/L

BUN

10 mg/dL

Creatinine

0.7 mg/dL

Na+

137 mEq/L

K+

3.3 mEq/L

Cl-

97 mEq/L

HCO-3

22 mEq/L

Blood



Hematocrit

37%

Hemoglobin

12 g/dL

WBC

12,100/mm3

Platelet count

317,000/mm3

Item 1 of 2

13. The patient says, "What are you going to do, Doc?"


Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A

) Cimetidine, intravenously

B

) Observation and supportive care

C

) Octreotide, intravenously

D

) Sclerotherapy

E

) Selective arterial vasopressin

Item 2 of 2

14. After 1 hour the patient's condition has stabilized. Despite your urging him to stay for further evaluation, he insists on leaving.


At this time which of the following is most appropriate to tell the patient?

A

) An elective operation should be scheduled

B

) He is at immediate risk for major gastrointestinal hemorrhage

C

) His symptoms might indicate severe alcoholic liver disease

D

) Omeprazole would help prevent further episodes

E

) The risk for rebleeding from this episode is relatively small



this is the case of mallory weiss tear ......and patient is pretty much stable in this case . what is the benifit of octreotide here ?? since this is not a source of bleeding from eophagal varices .....? wat is the managment of mallory weiss tear ......?? 1. supportive and observation ...> if still bleeding ...> Inj epinephrine ..> if still not working endoclip and embolization .

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#2
bleeding from EV------- we use octreotide+banding if still bleeind make tips.
MWT-- endoscopy is both diagnostic and theraputic, observ if still bleeding epine.
this pt has mwt , i will observ then if bleeing is stoped then he has smaal chance to rebleed again. so i will pick b and e. plz tell me what is right ans.
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#3
Upper endoscopy should be performed within the first 24 hours of admission for patients with rapid bleeding or with suspected end-stage liver disease, determine high-risk lesions such as a bleeding ulcer, from low-risk lesions, such as a Mallory-Weiss tear.
Acutely bleeding nonvariceal sources can be treated endoscopically with injection of normal saline which tamponades the small mucosal and submucosal vessels or more commonly diluted 1:10,000 epinephrine.

This pt is stable and with low risk lesion I think I will pick B and E
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#4
BBBBB
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