03-21-2007, 07:19 PM
13>A 60-year-old man suddenly becomes completely blind in one eye, and
angiography demonstrates occlusion of the central retinal artery.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the occlusion?
A. Atheroma or embolism
B. Cranial (temporal) arteritis
C. Hypertension
D. Polycythemia vera
E. Tumor
angiography demonstrates occlusion of the central retinal artery.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the occlusion?
A. Atheroma or embolism
B. Cranial (temporal) arteritis
C. Hypertension
D. Polycythemia vera
E. Tumor