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5
1.A
2.F
3.B
4.D
5.D
6.A
7.G
8.B
17 placement of an IUD
18 oxytocin administration
19 down syndrome
20 recommendation for use of a lubricant
21 varicella zoster iummune globulin therapy
22 condylomata acuminata
23 amenorrhea
24 atelectasis
25 increased cerical cell vulnerability to infections
26 chlamydia trachomatis infection
27 pedunculated submucous leiomyoma uteri
28 vaginal metronidazole gel
29 placental dysfunction
30 cervicitis
I did all CMS online, happen to got all these questions right on this form
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1. A
2. F
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. G
8. I put D and got wrong so not sure what it is.
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Can someone please explain the reasoning for #5 being D (Oxytocin administration)? I put fetal macrosomia.
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And also #3 being B? why is the fetus at increased risk of growth restrictions?
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jjsyusmle222~
Given the preeclamptic misbehavior in the stem, the fetus is at increased risk for placental abruption, and placental insufficiency (presumably because it's the placenta's (and dad's) fault that their preeclamptic in the first place.
Placental insufficiency ---> IUGR ---> Wee bebe.
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As for #5, the question was pretty ambiguous. "This pattern", meaning the stalled active labor, or "this pattern", meaning the tachysystole they threw toward at the end. The pattern they were referring to was the "every minute, 45 seconds long" contractions, not the labor as a whole. Clevuh girl...
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1. A
2. F
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. A
7. G
8. B
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Confirmed answers (I just took this):
2. F
3. B
4. D
5. D (tachysystole)
6. A
7. G (Asherman)
8. B (Irregular cycle may be due to insufficient progesterone, hence why we check progesterone before menstruation as part of Dx work up for oligo/amenorrhea. Lack of progesterone = lack of cervical mucus plug, thus making the cervix & uterine cavity susceptible to infections)
Unconfirmed answers:
1 (I put smoking for this. I thought it said 2 PACKS a week. In retrospect I would've picked something else)
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For #6,
Can the fever and elevated leukocytes really be explained by atelectasis alone? That seems fishy. Because of those signs, I chose pneumonia which was wrong.
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@dork, Read Q with care;
“Low grade fevers” in the 1st 48 hours (read Q again see where pat been) after surgery are a norm sequelae;
- Inflammation
- Atelectasis (asso w ~90% )
- Hematoma absorption following surgery
Usually NOT from an infectious process (Absence of ANY localizing signs/or symptoms/self-limited fever within the 1st 48 hrs postop usually does not need infectious work-up.)4-7 days from op day.
Other thinking you may want to know, pat who dev fever (indwelling cat/IV lines/Foley) afebrile for several days -> experience abrupt temp spike.
Fin.
