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Hardy Weinberg Q - usmle1001
#41
leschnyhan......itsfinal freq is calculated per chromosome..thats why the denominator is 200 coz there r 2 copies of alleles in each chromosome.
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#42
f(B) = 45/100 + 25/100 * 1/2
= 45/100 + 12.5/100
= 115/200
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#43
f(B) = 45/100 + 25/100 * 1/2
= 45/100 + 12.5/100
= 115/200
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#44
my dear adrenaline..
i have burnt my brains on this one... believe me, its in HW equilibrium.

115/200=.575 (B)
85/200=.425 (A)

So A+B is =1 in this case.

Getting intriguing...
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#45
my dear adrenaline..
i have burnt my brains on this one... believe me, its in HW equilibrium.

115/200=.575 (B)
85/200=.425 (A)

So A+B is =1 in this case.

Getting intriguing...
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#46
indi ans is eeeee
whats tough in that..........................??
use simple math

B frequency
25 +45+45/200
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#47
indi ans is eeeee
whats tough in that..........................??
use simple math

B frequency
25 +45+45/200
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#48
Indi......I'm too tired to think about this now...maybe tomorrow I'll be in a better position to discuss this. Lets make it a point to solve this q tomorrow. For now...I NEED TO SLEEP !!!!...SLEEP...BED.....DREAMS.....SLEEP....lol
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#49
Indi......I'm too tired to think about this now...maybe tomorrow I'll be in a better position to discuss this. Lets make it a point to solve this q tomorrow. For now...I NEED TO SLEEP !!!!...SLEEP...BED.....DREAMS.....SLEEP....lol
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#50
Grrr... read all my posts cd.. i m not just thinking of this Q.. i m wondering ..what if the examiners (the sadists that they r) twist n turn it so that we have to use HW equation.

Why cant we use b^2= BB here? this is the only thing thats troubling me.
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