we want th back - ray33

[ArchivalUser]

I think this question is from MKSAP 14 or 13 and thats y cricoid is saying that it is beyond the scope of step 3. Cricoid , correct me if i am wrong. Anyway,as far as my limited memory takes me the answer was B.

[ArchivalUser]

lol, stualis, heavenly explanation !!!
So, you mean if a Q is from MKSAP, that is not for step 3 ?? lol
How ab out if a Q is from Harrison ?

just kidding, glad to see you smiling !

[ArchivalUser]

glad to see you back TH!
I know its not the best explanation but that's what everybody says:
" MKSAP is beyond the scope of step 3"
although i personally enjoy doing MKSAP questions more than USMLE world since their explanations make much more sense and then you have the related syllabus with which you can gain more insight on the topic.

[ArchivalUser]

the correct answer is A.

The patient has osteomyelitis, diskitis, and an epidural abscess, all caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Antimicrobial therapy alone can be used for patients who have localized pain or radicular symptoms without long-tract findings, although this management approach is controversial, and patients require frequent neurologic examinations and serial MRI studies to document resolution.

CT-guided aspiration is not needed for organism identification because the blood cultures are already positive for S. aureus. The patient has no neurologic deficits, so there is no need for emergent laminectomy and decompression or placement of a lumbar drain. However, emergency surgical decompression should be performed for any patient with increasing neurologic deficits, persistent severe pain, increasing fever, or a persistently elevated leukocyte count.