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nbme 26 - sammy06
#1
26. A 36-year-old African-American woman with hypertension comes to the office because of a 3-day history of intermittent, painless, gross hematuria. Symptoms started spontaneously, and she has not had fever, chills, flank pain or dysuria. Her only medication is hydrochlorothiazide. Vital signs are: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse 72/min and blood pressure 128/84 mm Hg. Physical examination is normal; there is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Laboratory studies show:


Serum



Urine



Electrolytes

Normal

Protein

3+

Glucose

78 mg/dL

Blood

Positive

BUN

8 mg/dL

Microscopic

RBCs too numerous to count

Blood





No WBCs, bacteria or casts

CBC

Normal

Nitrite

Negative

Partial thromboplastin time

Normal

Urine culture

Pending

Platelet count

268,000/mm3





Prothrombin time

Normal






Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A

) Cystoscopy

B

) Determination of protein excretion in a 24-hour urine sample

C

) Initiation of antibiotic therapy

D

) Renal biopsy

E

) Transvaginal ultrasonography of the uterus
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#2
DDDD but a weird Q ...
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#3
a..
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#4
i marked a
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#5
aa?
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#6
aaa
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#7
aaaaaaaaa
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#8
I picked BBBBBB

micrscopic hematuri can be due to sickel cell trait as dshe is african american.

but she shouldnt have protein 3+ in her urine......

considering her age I dont think its cancer so no cystoscopy
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#9
this is a painless gross hematuria, with ptnuria , would think of Ca or some nephritic syndrome, although unlikely, would pick A
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