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A 24-year-old man is hospitalized for treatment of a posterior dislocation of the
right knee sustained in a motorcycle collision. Six hours after closed reduction,
previously present distal pulses in his foot are absent, but the foot has remained
warm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Elevation of the limb and observation for 24hours
B) Nitroprusside therapy
C) Sympathetic block
D) Femoral arteriography
E) Embolectomy with a Fogarty catheter through aproximal arteriotomy
D) Inflammation of the origin of the plantar fascia
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don't we do an arteriogram before actually performing embolectomy...
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but this patient has an ongoing ischemia,absent distal pulses
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arteriography and embolectomy/catheter directed thrombolysis if u find a thrombus.if there isnt a thrombus (for example popliteal artery disruption during surgical manipulation) then, we need to proceed with a definitive vascular repair.
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not yet clear w/ this one guys
