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nbmne2 blk2 q17 - niceday
#1
17.
A 42-year-old woman comes for a follow-up examination.
Two weeks ago,
her blood pressure was 152/94 mm Hg during a routine
visit. Her blood
pressure today is 150/94 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and
respirations are
14/min. Examination shows no other abnormalities.
Serum studies show:
Na+ 142 mEq/L
Cl“ 105 mEq/L
K+ 4 mEq/L
HCO3“ 26 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen (BUN) 12 mg/dL
Glucose 101 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
An ECG shows no abnormalities. Which of the following
is the most
appropriate next step in management?
A
) Measurement of plasma renin activity
B
) Serum lipid studies
C
) 24-Hour urine collection for measurement of
metanephrine level
D
) Echocardiography
E
) Captopril renal scan
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#2
B.
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#3
can you explain it plz kiran?
Is it not HT due to atherosclerosis(Mcc), so the option is EE???
Or... is it not Pheo, so that the option is CCC??
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#4
ccc pheochromocytoma
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#5
B..
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#6
First we have to do the routine tests which include lipid panel test, so it's B (see JNC VII)
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