07-13-2006, 01:37 AM
An 18-year-old man comes to the physician 1 week after he had a blood pressure of 140/110 mm Hg during a routine precollege examination. His temperature is 37. 1 C (98.7 F), BP is 140/100 mm Hg, P is 92/min, and RR are 12/min. The upper extremities appear to be more muscular than the lower extremities. Radial pulses are normal, femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses are decreased. A grade 2/6 systolic murmur is head over the precordium, anterior chest, and back. An ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following is the most approproiate next step in management?
A) Limiting physical activity
B) Repeat BP measurement in 1 month
C) Initiate a low-sodium diet and exercise program
D) Pharmacologic management
E) Operative treatment
A) Limiting physical activity
B) Repeat BP measurement in 1 month
C) Initiate a low-sodium diet and exercise program
D) Pharmacologic management
E) Operative treatment