A 34-year-old primigravid woman - malak

[ArchivalUser]

A 34-year-old primigravid woman at 30 weeks' gestation comes to the physician with regular contractions every 6 minutes. Her prenatal course was significant for type 1 diabetes, which she has had for 10 years. Over the course of 1 hour, she continues to contract, and her cervix advances from closed and long to a fingertip of dilation with some effacement. The patient is started on magnesium sulfate, penicillin, and betamethasone. Which of the following is the most likely side effect from the administration of corticosteroids to this patient?


A. Decreased childhood intelligence

B. Increased maternal insulin requirement

C. Maternal infection

D. Neonatal adrenal suppression

E. Neonatal infection

[ArchivalUser]

ans.B

[ArchivalUser]

Though we rule out infections coz of penicillin and considering pregnancy is a stress we can relate stress induced hyperglycemia due to steroids causing inc insulin demand....
can anyone explain if steroid induced adrenal supression also a possibility? B or D??

[ArchivalUser]

b

[ArchivalUser]

its b