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A patient with rheumatic fever develops a sore throat from which beta-hemolytic streptococci are cultured. The patient is started on treatment with penicillin, and the sore throat resolves within several days. However, 7 days after initiation of penicillin therapy the patient develops a fever of 103°F, a generalized rash, and proteinuria. This MOST probably resulted from
A. recurrence of the rheumatic fever.
B. a different infectious disease.
C. an IgE response to penicillin.
D. an IgG-IgM response to penicillin.
E. a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin.
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serum sickness, type 3. so D.
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D.it is type 2 hypersensitivity
hypersen reaction caused by quinidine is type III in which quinidine acts as hapten and igm attaches to drug.IgM then activates MAC formation thru classical pathway n I/V hemolysis happens.hapten dec n Hb appears in urine
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Kamashla The question is asking about penicillin and that mechanism is for anemia only., not present in this patient.
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i got it.u made it clear in another post abt the same q.thanks once again.
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PENICILLIN ALLERGY
Classified as:
1. Immediate (within first hour) - Anaphylaxis, hives, wheezing.
2. Accelerated (1-72 hours later) - Urticaria is major symptom.
3. Late (more than 72 hours later) - Maculopapular reactions, drug fever, serum sickness, hemolytic anemia, leukocytopenia.
remember guys, if it is 1 or 2, then it is IgE mediated type I
If it is S/S days later, it is serum sickness typyIII, thus IgG amd/or IgM mediated.
Time issue is the key for diagonisis here
