03-23-2007, 07:10 AM
A 75-year-old woman is referred from her primary care physician with a leukocyte count of 34× 103/mm3 with 80% lymphocytes, hemoglobin concentration of 13 g/dL, hematocrit of 40%, and platelet count of 220× 103/mm3. A physical examination and computed tomography (CT) scan show no evidence of lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, or hepatomegaly. She is asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient at this time?
1..Bone marrow transplantation
2..Chlorambucil
3..fludarabin with predinisolone
4..Hydroxyurea to eliminate the risk of leukostasis
5..No treatment is indicated at this time
1..Bone marrow transplantation
2..Chlorambucil
3..fludarabin with predinisolone
4..Hydroxyurea to eliminate the risk of leukostasis
5..No treatment is indicated at this time