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A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Examination shows her cervix to be long, thick, closed, and posterior. The fetal heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. The fetus is vertex on ultrasound. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed intravaginally. One hour later, the patient begins having contractions lasting longer than 2 minutes. The fetal heart rate falls to the 70s. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administer general anesthesia
B. Administer terbutaline
C. Perform amnioinfusion
D. Start oxytocin
E. Perform cesarean delivery
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I am btw D b/c of inadequte contraction n E b/c of Fetal Jeopardy?
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C. Perform amnioinfusion ....closed to posterm at high risk for meconium inspiration
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ben look at hear rate its bad sign here
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so ur saying macrosomic baby?? that why amniofusion
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yeh they are at more risk of meconium inspiration as Stress most of the time leads to it
But this question is too picky
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e..........
fetal distress
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Ben it 'll dilute the stuff so it'll help the inspirated fluid 'll be with less evil...lol...thats the best option i can think of here under these options...otherwise it'll be E...But dont know what are motive of this question
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motive of this qs is post term pregnancy ........already 42 weeks .........so , think the consequence...........
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im still with
C. Perform amnioinfusion
