I am done Guys! - drmaxdias

[ArchivalUser]

Yes, I did get EKGs; did not require them actually to make a diagnosis. There were 3-4 of them. Yes, I did read FA, and it did help me in a few questions.

Thanks for the wishes doctorsaheb! The other choices did not make sense to me, and I do not think I remember them (for the Turner's question). No, the Nigro protocol was not mentioned in the options.

[ArchivalUser]

One question where in the mammogram was negative, but the mass was suspicious (firm; non-tender). I do not remember the age, but we still biopsy it. So that is what I picked.

One another question where in there was an adnexal mass in a postmenopausal woman, I think with a hyperechogenic focus, and/or a septation. So next step shall be USG guided-biopsy; I picked that.

One question where in a young man has multiple sexual partners; uses condoms consistently; and does not use a seat belt. We had to decide b/w advising him seat belt advice or HIV testing. I picked latter.

[ArchivalUser]

hey i am agree with you in first two question but my point of thinking is that in usa unintended injuries are number one cause of death in united states and so it will be much beneficial if we give him advice that he shd have seat belt,further he is using regular condoms

[ArchivalUser]

congrats drmaxdias!...goodluck for a gr8 score...thx for sharing ur experience!

[ArchivalUser]

Thanks bond for the answers; I am unsure of the last one, but I agree that MCC of death in 25-44 year age population is RTIs. So, not sure! I was 50-50 b/w the two, while in the examination.

Thanks fido for the wishes! I appreciate them. God bless us all!

[ArchivalUser]

One question where I think the patient was post LSCS; 4 weeks; there was abdominal pain; it was not Endometritis, or other inflammatory cause cause there was no fever (98.6 F). There were two shotty Lymph Nodes. I picked Incisional Seroma as the answer. The rest did not fit. Comments.

What about the answer to that boy, with medica femoral condyle swelling, and LNs in the groin. X-Ray? Other options were MRI, and LN biopsy, the relevant ones.

[ArchivalUser]

Thanks for all ur help.Come back with score. GL..........

[ArchivalUser]

Thanks delimed;

Questions on Pathophys; one asked the Pathophys of septic shock (CO was increased; PCWP normal; MVO2 was not given, but it was septic shock indeed). I think they asked about Pathophys of hypoxia in here. Is there a backup of blood to the lungs also in septic shock, due to increased venous return, and increased volume?

One was a hypertensive patient with hypertension, now presenting with new S3, bibasilar rales, and pedal edema; I think the answer to this one was decreased ventricular compliance.

[ArchivalUser]

dear drmaxdias,

for the septic shock q, the tissue hypoxia is due to cytokines induced vasodilation and endothelial damage, which then leads to both hypoperfusion of the tissue and also capillary leak (which inhibits the O2 diffusion..)

The boy, with medica femoral condyle swelling, and LNs in the groin question, it sounds like osteomyelitis, if the pt presents in one weeks, MRI or bone scan is the choice due to their high sensitivity. X-ray will pick up the changes after 2-3 weeks.

mammogram was negative question, I think you are correct. mammogram has about 10-20% false negative rates and it is one of the big reasons why many pts sued their ob/gyn doctors after discovering CA with a normal mammogram... further work up is requird for a mass with negative mammogram....

[ArchivalUser]

adnexal mass in a postmenopausal woman question, you are correct. you have to rule out ovarian ca via biopsy

young man has multiple sexual partners; uses condoms consistently; and does not use a seat belt. We had to decide b/w advising him seat belt advice or HIV testing...

very tricky....


oh, for the septic shock q, in your question setting, I think increased venous return is the answer as peripheral BVs are dilated and blood goes back to the heart at a faster rate..