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A 35-year-old man with no significant past medical history comes to the office complaining of malaise, fever, headache, and a diffuse, nonpruritic, maculopapular rash that has spread from his palms and soles over the last ten days. A recent test for HIV was negative. On physical examination, he has a temperature of 100.5 F. There are mucocutaneous patches at the angles of the mouth, and the palate and pharynx are inflamed. He has generalized adenopathy with a maculopapular rash on the margins of the ribs, lateral trunk, and all four extremities. The rash on the palms and soles is hyperpigmented with a superficial scale. There is a large, pale, flat-topped papule found in the perineum. What would be the test of choice to follow this patient's response to treatment?
(A) Darkfield microscopy
(B) FTA-ABS
© MHA-TP
(D) VDRL
(E) Serial clinical examinations
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D?..... sec syphilis confirmed with MHA TP or FTA ABS....then VDRL titres can be used for response to follow up...
condyloma lata is extremely infectious.. has a lot of spirochaetes in them...even darkfield wud be positive but is not used
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hello darkhorse.......long time no see..whats up?
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and darkhorse cud u pls clear the DCM controversy for us in one of quansars post.....thx a lot
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hellow ronaldo...busy with work....went to baltimore for a conference...than busy with oncalls...now back....and which post u r talking about??
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u r a busy man sir....grt to see u back....
the HTN post of quansar.....thx a lot
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VDRL is the answer as it is t he only test that is able to quantify the load....
