q5 - kola

[ArchivalUser]

A 30-year-old man has had increasing malaise with fever, abdominal pain, and weight loss of 3 kg over the past 3 weeks. On physical examination his blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg. He has a stool positive for occult blood. A urinalysis reveals hematuria but no proteinuria or glucosuria. He has no serum anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies and his antinuclear antibody test is negative. Aneurysmal arterial dilations and occlusions are seen in the medium sized renal and mesenteric arteries with angiography. He improves with corticosteroid therapy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

A Benign nephrosclerosis

B Fibromuscular dysplasia

C Nodular glomerulosclerosis

D Polyarteritis nodosa

E Systemic lupus erythematosus

F Thrombotic microangiopathy

G Wegener granulomatosis

[ArchivalUser]

..D

[ArchivalUser]

B.

[ArchivalUser]

dddd-Classic polyarteritis nodosa often affects multiple organs, not just the kidney. The classic form of polyarteritis affects medium to small sized arteries.

[ArchivalUser]

presentation is typical but what about the ANCA??

[ArchivalUser]

i thought WGranolomatosis AT FIRST BUT THE EXPLANATION given says PAN.

[ArchivalUser]

hmm why not b.