form 3 q1 - candace

[ArchivalUser]

A healthy 60-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine
examination. She has no history of illness over the past year and has
never had an operation. She takes no medications. Menopause occurred 6
years ago. She weighs 57 kg (125 lb) and is 160 cm (63 in) tall.
Pelvic examination shows atrophic external genitalia and a small,
midpositioned uterus. The left ovary is 3 x 3 cm, the right ovary is
not palpable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step
in management?

O A) Reexamination in 1 month
O B) Reexamination in 1 year
O C) Obtain patient's medical records
O D) Measurement of serum progesterone level
O E) Pelvic ultrasonography

[ArchivalUser]

E
pelvic U/S

[ArchivalUser]

E.

[ArchivalUser]

EEE

1. Transabdominal and, more recently, transvaginal ultrasonography have been evaluated as potential first line screening methods for ovarian cancer.
2. Measurement of the serum concentration of the glycoprotein CA 125 antigen is the most widely studied biochemical method of screening for ovarian cancer.