12-12-2007, 05:13 PM
A 56-year-old male is found to have a pulsatile non-tender mass above his umbilicus during an abdominal examination. The patient has a history of an anterior wall MI two years ago and is hypertensive. His only complaints at this time are non-bloody diarrhea and abdominal cramps. His vitals are normal and the rest of the physical examination is nremarkable.Which of the following steps is the most appropriate regarding the management of the pulsatile abdominal mass found in this patient?
A. Plain abdominal x-ray
B. Abdominal CT scan
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Abdominal MRI
E. No testing required
A. Plain abdominal x-ray
B. Abdominal CT scan
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Abdominal MRI
E. No testing required