03-11-2008, 11:53 AM
3. A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. On arrival, he is awake and alert but has severe pain over the sternum. His systolic blood pressure is 80 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 10/min. An ECG shows multifocal premature ventricular contractions but no ST-segment changes. His PO2 is 100 mm Hg. After 1 L of lactated Ringer's solution is administered, his PO2 decreases to 60 mm Hg while breathing 4 L/min of oxygen by nasal cannula. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure has increased from 14 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg (N=1“10). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's poor response to fluid resuscitation?
A ) Inadequate administration of fluids
B ) Myocardial contusion
C ) Myocardial infarction
D ) Pulmonary contusion
E ) Traumatic rupture of the aorta
A ) Inadequate administration of fluids
B ) Myocardial contusion
C ) Myocardial infarction
D ) Pulmonary contusion
E ) Traumatic rupture of the aorta