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An asymptomatic 57-year-old man with a 3-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus
comes for a routine follow-up visit. Examination shows no abnormalities. Serum
studies show:
Aspartate aminotransferase
(AST, GOT) 76 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase
(ALT, GPT) 86 U/L
Iron 260 μg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity 300 μg/dL (N=250“450)
Ferritin 1200 ng/mL
Antinuclear antibody negative
Serologic testing for hepatitis is negative. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in management?
A
) Corticosteroid therapy
B
) Interferon therapy
C
) Penicillamine therapy
D
) Chronic phlebotomy
E
) No therapy indicated
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haenochromatosis ...so phlebotomy first >??
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is it because patient is not showing any ailment, no therapy is not indicated for the moment ??
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DDDDDDDDDDD
the pt does have Sx.....diabetic,elevated liver enzymes although not worrying yet.
look at Ferritin,doesnt that bother you?
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