what is answer and pls explain why 1.1. 29 - trythebest

[ArchivalUser]

A previous healthy 56 yo man has the sudden onset of severe headaches that become worse in the afternoons. His blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg. Renal arteriography shows 85% occulison of the right renal artery. The laboratory finding that best predict whether an operation that relieves the obstruction will reduce the blood pressure to normal is increased renin activity in the
a/ left renal artery vs right renal artery
b/ left renal vein vs right renal vein
c/ right renal artery vs right renal vein
d/ right renal vein vs left renal vein

[ArchivalUser]

DD

[ArchivalUser]

need explanation. anyone?

[ArchivalUser]

right side kidney is ischemic so , renin released in response to ischemia. and left side remains normal ..... wats the ans ....

[ArchivalUser]

why increased renin in vein (CO2 blood) instead in artery (O2 blood)??

[ArchivalUser]

DD

it's the flow of blood that decrease beyond the the obstruction(Renal Artery)----which caused the Juxta G cells of Afferent arteriols to release Renin----now the renin increases in Afferent Arterioles and now where this blood is flowing next? Renal artery or Renal Vein---------it's the Renal VEIN.

can u please mark ur post as NBME. thanks