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A 55 year old man has had decreasing interest in sex over the past 2 years and impotence for the past 6 months. He has frequent headaches . Examination shows bitemporal visual field defects, sparse facial and pubic hair and testicular atrophy. MRI shows a 3-cm pituitary tumor. Which of the following sets of serum hormone concentrations is most likely?
Luteinizing Testosterone
Hormone
(A) decrease decrease
(B) decrease increase
© Normal Normal
(D) increase decrease
(E) increase increase
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The patient most likely has pitutary adenoma (secreting prolactin...as most pitutary adenomas are prolactinomas).....the high serum level of prolactin decreases the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalumus...this in turn decreases FSH AND LH secretion from the anterior pituitary ...this inturn causes decreased secretion of sex hormones from the testis
hence My answer would be A
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Yes ...you are right..should have put a bit more of thinking ...Thank you
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Yup.. Thanks got it straight
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I had chosen A when I first read the question, but not for the reason given by yeabiruh. My idea was that a pituitary tumor would cause hypopituitarism which would cause lower amounts of pituitary hormones such as LH and ACTH. This would lead to decrease decrease (since ACTH would have limited effect on adrenals).
