nbme form3 q7 - certi

[ArchivalUser]

A 35-year-old man with a 10-year history of persistent hallucinations and delusions comes for a follow-up examination. He has been treated with haloperidol, chlorpromazine, and fluphenazine with minimal relief of symptoms. He is currently taking haloperidol. On examination, he walks slowly with no arm swing and has no facial movements. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his motor behavior?
A ) Excess limbic γ-aminobutyric acid activity
B ) Increased serum prolactin level
C ) Nigrostriatal dopamine blockade
D ) Noradrenergic depletion in the frontal lobe
E ) Ventral tegmental dopamine blockade

nbme form3 has more questions like this one. Asking about mechanism instand of diagnosis and management.

[ArchivalUser]

C.
nigro-striatal pathway is asso. with movement disorders
tubero-infundibular pathway is asso. is prolactin-inh. factor, ie, dopamine
nucleas-accumbans pathway is asso. with addiction
meso-limbic cortical pathway asoo. with psychosis
hope this helps....

[ArchivalUser]

very good. I remember in step1 some where. Thanks very much.

[ArchivalUser]

agree with cs.