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plz answer and substantiate -
#1
RAJ

A 22-year-old male presents to the student health center complaining of scrotal discomfort and swelling. He has no complaint of urethral discharge, fever, or genital lesions. He has been sexually active with the same partner for 3 years and uses condoms regularly as their method of birth control. He is otherwise healthy. The examination reveals a tender mass in the posterior aspect of the left testis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?


A. Epididymitis
B. Lymphoma
C. Primary germ cell tumor
D. Varicoceles
E. Spermatoceles
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#2
topo

a?
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#3
arcane

The answer should be C.
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#4
topo

are germ tumor tender as in ques?
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#5
rahul

answer is A
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#6
ankur

A.
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#7
topo

ankur -can i have yr e-mail....i need to ask 5 -10 question doubts of usmle?

when are u appearing for step2?are u done with step1?
goodluck
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#8
a m - adingmc

the ans should b epididymitis as tenderness in post part of testis suggests it. STD is rulled out as do lymphoma and pri germ cell tumor because of tenderness. varicocele/spermatocele is out of que. epididymitis is the ans..i have seen such cases in surg opd.
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#9
ankur - ankur_segon

Here it is,topo.I'll be appearing for step2 in july.Yes, i am done with my step1.
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#10
RAJ

it is C.
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