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nbme question, need help - kath2329
#1
23. A 48-year-old man with severe uncontrolled systemic hypertension develops a headache and vomiting. Two hours later he has left-sided weakness followed rapidly by loss of consciousness. He dies shortly after admission to the emergency department. A section of his brain as seen at autopsy is shown. The most likely mechanism of the lesion shown is hemorrhage from which of the following?


A. Bridging vein
B. Congenital arteriovenous malformation
C. Intracerebral vein
D. Lenticulostriate artery
E. Saccular aneurysm of the anterior cerebral artery

I know that in hypertension lenticulostriate vessels can turn weak, thus causing an hemorrage, but how we're gonna differentiate from a sacular aneurysm (no in the case of this question because involves the ACA and is not the brain location marked by the image), but if we dont have an image, how differentiate a saccular (berry aneurysm) from a bauchart aneurysm clinically?
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#2
which NBME?..
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#3
@kath2329 are u around, history of pat help, "clinically" 99.99999 not pops/UNruptured intracranial ->
"A"symptomatic. History of yr pat can help. But u must be present with a clue what been given in steam of presentatiion. My reply just for what u been ask here.


And Please when you post nb Q make sure u note the "FORM #" ( u don't need to post block or Q#) for those who hv been here for ages and cannot recognize form 3.
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#4
pls wat is steam
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#5
@gru, hope that's your idSmile http://i.imgur.com/NHuq2tP.png?1 hope that help.
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#6
thank u cardio for always being present!... In my mext posts I'll label the nbme number!
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#7
btw cardio, which book do u think is good enough and not too long for step 1?
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#8
@kath: there are no shortcuts to step 1
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