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pregnant woman has gonorrhea - nida
#1
A 28-year-old pregnant woman has gonorrhea. The most appropriate treatment would include ceftriaxone to eliminate gonococci plus another drug given presumptively to eliminate Chlamydia. The antichlamydial agent would act by

A. binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, thereby preventing attachment of the aminoacyl tRNA to the acceptor site
B. binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, thereby preventing formation of the initiation complex
C. binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit, thereby inhibiting peptidyltransferase activity
D. binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit, thereby preventing translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the acceptor site to the donor site
E. inhibiting transpeptidase, thereby preventing the cross linking of the bacterial cell wall
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#2
A.
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#3
D.
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#4
A, because its Tetracycline which works by binding to 30S rRNA and prevents attachment of aminoacyl tRNA to that site
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#5
sorry I take that back, since Tetracycline is c/I in pregnancyso I guess you use a macrolide which works via choice D
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#6
D. is the right answer.
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#7
D.spectinomycin is the drug used
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#8
I'll still go with A since the Q asked for : The antichlamydial agent would act by
spectinomycin doesn't work on Chlamydial!
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#9
The right answer is D.
Because, it does correpond to macrolides, which in case is AZITHROMYCIN. Azithromycin covers chlamydia and also can be used in pregancy.
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#10
oh! Thanks
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